PERIYAR SPEECH

http://www.periyarkural.com/

MCI 2002

SOLVED
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

Anatomy
Q 1. All the following are derivatives of the neural crest, except:
A. Melanocyte
B. Adrenal medulla
C. Sympathetic ganglia
D. Cauda equina
Ans. D
Q 2. Which of the following is true regarding gastrulation:
A. Establishes all the three germ layers
B. Occurs at the caudal end of the embryo prior to
its cephalic end
C. Involves the hypoblastic cells of inner cell mass
D. Usually occurs at 4 weeks
Ans. A
Q 3. All the following features are seen in neurons from dorsal root ganglia, except:
A. They have centrally located nuclei
B. They are derived from neural crest cells
C. They are multipolar
D. They contain lipofuscin granules
Ans. C
Q 4. Elastic cartilage is found in:
A. Auditory tube
B. Nasal septum
C. Articular cartilage
D. Costal cartilage
Ans. A
Q 5. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by:
A. Coracoclavicular ligament
B. Coracoacromial ligament
C. Costoclavicular ligament
D. Coracohumeral ligament
Ans. A
Q 6. The superficial external pudendal artery is a branch of:
A. Femoral artery
B. External iliac artery
C. Internal iliac artery
D. Aorta
Ans. A

Q 7. Diaphragmatic hernia can occur through all the following, except:
A. Esophageal opening
B. Costovertebral triangle
C. Costal and sternal attachment of diaphragm
D. Inferior vena cava opening
Ans. D
Q 8. Ureteric constriction is seen at all the following positions, except:
A. Ureteropelvic junction
B. Ureterovesicle junction
C. Crossing of iliac artery
D. Ischial spine
Ans. D
Q 9. All the following are true regarding blood supply to the kidney , except:
A. Stellate veins drain superficial zone
B. It is site of portosystemic anastomosis
C. The renal artery divides into five segmental arteries before entering the hilum
D. Its segmental arteries are end-arteries
Ans. B
Q 10. A patient with external hemorrhoids develops pain while passing stools. The nerve mediating this pain is:
A. Hypogastric nerve
B. Pudendal nerve
C. Splachnic visceral nerve
D. Sympathetic plexus
Ans. B
Q 11. Which of the following muscles is supplied by mandibular nerve:
A. Masseter
B. Buccinator
C. Tensor veli palati
D. Posterior belly of digastric
Ans. C
Q 12. The sensoy supply of the palate is through all of the following, except:
A. Facial nerve
B. Hypoglossal nerve
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve
Ans. B
Q 13. All of the following are features of large intestine, except:
A. Large intestine secretes acidic mucus which helps in formation of stools
B. It is a site of mucocutaneous junction
C. Its epithelium contains globlets cells in large numbers
D. Absorbs salt and water
Ans. A
Q 14. In flexion and abduction of shoulder all of the following structures are compressed except:
A. Subacromial bursa
B. Long head of biceps
C. Suprascapular nerve
D. Supraspinatus tendon
Ans. C
Physiology
Q 15. SI unit for measuring blood pressure is:
A. Torr
B. mrnHg
C. kPa
D. Bar
Ans. C
Q 16. Glucose mediated insulin release is mediated through:
A. ATP dependent K+ channels
B. cAMP
C. Carrier modulators
D. Receptor phosphorylation
Ans. A
Q 17. Sudden decrease in serum calcium is associated with:
A. Increased thyroxine and PTH secretion
B. Increased phosphate
C. Increased excitability of muscle and nerve
D. Cardiac conduction abnormalities
Ans. C
Q 18. Ablation of the ‘somatosensory area 1’ of the cerebral cortex leads to:
A. Total loss of pain sensation
B. Total loss of touch sensation
C. Loss of tactile localization but not of two point discrimination
D. Loss of tactile localization and two point discrimination
Ans. D
Q 19. Non shivering thermogenesis in adults is due to:
A. Thyroid hormone
B. Brown fat between the shoulders
C. Adrenaline from adrenal medulla
D. Muscle metabolism
Ans. C
Q 20. In metabolic acidosis, which of the following changes are seen:
A. Increased K+excretion
B. Decreased K+ excretion
C. Increased Na+ excretion
D. Increased Na+ reabsorption
Ans. B
Q 21. Tropomyosin:
A. Helps in the fusion of actin and myosin
B. Covers myosin and prevents attachments of actin and myosin
C. Slides over myosin
D. Causes Ca2+ release
Ans. B
Q 22. TRH stimulation testing is useful in diagnosis of disorders of following hormones:
A. Insulin
B. ACTH
C. Prolactin
D. PTH
Ans. C
Q 23. During muscular exercise all are seen except:
A. Increase in blood flow to muscles
B. Stroke volume increases
C. O2 dissociation curve shifts to left
D. O2 consumption increases
Ans. C
Biochemistry
Q 24. “All enzymes are not proteins.” This statement is justified by:
A. All enzymes do not follow the Michaelis Menten hypothesis
B. RNAs act as ribozymes
C. Antibodies take part in the catalysis of many reactions
D. Metals are involved in attachment to enzymes and catalysts
Ans. B
Q 25. Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another are:
A. Transferases
B. Oxidases
C. Lysases
D. Peptidases
Ans. A
Q 26. In which of the following reactions is magnesium required:
A. Na+K+ ATPase
B. Dismutase
C. Phosphatase
D. Aldolase
Ans. A
Q 27. In oxidative phosphorylation, the ATP production and respiratory chain are linked by:
A. Chemical methods
B. Physical methods
C. Chemiosmotic methods
D. Conformational changes
Q Ans. C
Q 28. Thiamine level is best monitored by:
A. Transketolase level in RBC
B. Thiamine level in blood
C. G-6-PD activity
D. Reticulocytosis
Ans. A
Q 29. Vitamin B12 and folic acid supplementation in megaloblastic anemia leads to the improvement of anemia due to:
A. Increased DNA synthesis in bone marrow
B. Increased hemoglobin production
C. Erythroid hyperplasia
D. Increased iron absorption
Ans. A
Q 30. Nitric oxide synthase:
A. Is inhibited by Ca++
B. Catalyses a dioxygenase reaction
C. Accepts electrons from NADH
D. Requires NADH, FAD, FMN & heme iron
Ans. D
Q 31. Phenylalanine is the precursor of all the following, except:
A. Tyrosine
B. Epinephrine
C. Thyroxine
D. Melatonin
Ans. D
Q 32. In a well fed state, acetyl CoA obtained from diet is least used in the synthesis of:
A. Palmity CoA
B. Citrate
C. Acetoacetate
D. Oxalosuccinate
Ans. C
Q 33. Substrate level phosphorylation in citric acid cycle is seen in the conversion of:
-ketoglutarateaA. Acetoacetate to
B. Succinyl CoA to succinate
C. Fumarate to malate
D. Succinate to fumarate
Ans. B
Q 34. Apo B48 and apo B100 are expressed as two different apo-proteins because of difference in:
A. RNA editing
B. RNA splicing
C. Chromosomal loci
D. Apo-B gene
Ans. A
Q 35. All the following can be used to detect mutation, except:
A. Single strand conformational polymorphism
B. Ligase chain reaction
C. Polymerase chain reaction
D. DNA sequencing
Ans. B
Q 36. Which of the following is true regarding hydroxy ethyl starch:
A. It is an anesthetic agent
B. It is a plasma expander
C. It is a crystalloid
D. Used as a nutritional agent
Ans. B
Q 37. Elasticity of the corneal layer of SKIN is due to the presence of:
A. Histidine
B. Keratin
C. Lysine
D. Cysteine
Ans. B
Q 38. In dividing cells, spindle is formed by:
A. Ubiquitin
B. Tubulin
C. Laminin
D. Keratin
Ans. B

Q 39. Entropy in a biological system is constant because:
A. It is an open system
B. It is a closed system
C. It is a governed by vitalism
D. Has exothermic-endothermic reactions
Ans. D
Q 40. Which of the following is true regarding a system which favours oscillatory responses:
A. Has proportional component
B. Has a greater gain
C. Has a lesser gain
D. Positive FEEDBACK system
Ans. D
Q 41. Highest binding of iron is seen with:
A. Transferrin
B. Ferritin
C. Haemoglobin
D. Ceruloplasmin
Ans. C
Pathology
Q 42. The epitheloid cell and multinucleated gaint cells of granulomatous inflammation are derived from:
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. CD4 T lymphocytes
D. Monocytes-macrophages
Ans. D
Q 43. The following host tissue responses can be seen in acute infection, except:
A. Exudation
B. Vasodilation
C. Margination
D. Granuloma formation
Ans. D
Q 44. The following feature is common to both cytotoxic T cells and NK cells:
A. Synthesize antibody
B. Require antibodies to be present for action
C. Effective against virus infected cells
D. Recognize antigen in association with HLA class II markers
Ans. C
Q 45. In the intra-epithelial region of the mucosa of intestine the predominant cell population is that of:
A. B cell
B. T cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Basophils
Ans. B
Q 46. In primary tuberculosis, all of the following may be seen except:
A. Cavitation
B. Caseation
C. Calcification
D. Langerhan giant cell
Ans. A
Q 47. A mylocardial infarct showing early granulation tissue has most likely occurred:
A. Less than 1 hours
B. Within 24 hours
C. Within 1 week
D. Within 1 month
Ans. D
Q 48. A 10 year old boy, died of acute rheumatic fever. All the following can be expected at autopsy except:
A. Ashoff nodules
B. Rupture of chordae tendinae
C. McCallum patch
D. Fibrinous pericarditis
Ans. B
Q 49. All of the following are seen in asbestosis except:
A. Diffuse alveolar damage
B. Calcified pleural plaques
C. Diffuse pulmonary interstitial fibrosis
D. Mesotheliomas
Ans. A
Q 50. Macrophages containing large quantities of undigested and partial digested bacteria in intestine are seen in:
A. Whipple’s disease
B. Amyloidosis
C. Immunoproliferative small instetinal disease
D. Vibrio cholerae infection
Ans. A

Q 51. The histological features of celiac disease include all of the following, except:
A. Crypt hyperplasia
B. Increase in thickness of the mucosa
C. Increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes
D. Increase in inflammatory cells in lamina propria
Ans. B
Q 52. In a chronic alcoholic all the following may be seen in the liver except:
A. Fatty degeneration
B. Chronic hepatitis
C. Granuloma formation
D. Cholestatic hepatitis
Ans. C
Q 53. Crescent formation is characteristic of the following glomerular disease:
A. Minimal change disease
B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
C. Focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis
D. Rapidly non prgressive glomerulonephritis
Ans. B
Q 54. Necrotizing papillitis may be seen in all of the following conditions except:
A. Sickle cell disease
B. Tuberculous pyelonephritis
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Analgesic nephropathy
Ans. B
Q 55. Disease or infarction of neurological tissue causes it to be replaced by:
A. Fluid
B. Neuroglia
C. Proliferation of adjacent nerve cells
D. Blood vessel
Ans. B
Q 56. Flat small vegetations in the cusps of both tricuspid and mitral valves are seen in:
A. Viral myocarditis
B. Libmann Sach’s endocarditis
C. Rheumatic carditis
D. Infective endocarditis
Ans. B
Microbiology
Q 57. Bacteria may acquire characteristics by all of the following except:
A. Taking up soluble DNA fragments across their cell wall from other species
B. Incorporating part of host DNA
C. Through bacteriophages
D. Through conjugation
Ans. B
Q 58. Neonatal thymectomy leads to:
A. Decreased size of germinal center
B. Decreased size of paracortical areas
C. Increased antibody production by B cells
D. mcreased bone marrow production of lymphocytes
Ans. B
Q 59. Staphylococcus aureus differs from Staphylococcus epidermidis by:
A. Is coagulase positive
B. Forms white colonies
C. A common cause of UTI
D. Causes endocarditis in drug addicts
Ans. A
Q 60. Positive Shick’s test indicates that person is:
A. Immune to diptheria
B. Hypersensitive to diptheria
C. Susceptible to diptheria
D. Carrier of diptheria
Ans. C
Q 61. In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by:
A. Blood culture
B. Widal
C. Stool culture
D. Urine culture
Ans. B
Q 62. Which of the following is transmitted by rat urine?
A. Leptospira
B. Listeria
C. Legionella
D. Mycoplasma
Ans. A
Q 63. AII the following are true about Listeria except:
A. Transmitted by contaminated milk
B. Gram negative bacteria
C. Causes abortion in pregnancy
D. Causes meningitis in neonates
Ans. B
Q 64. Which of the following statement is true about Bacteroides:
A. It is gram positive bacilli
B. It is strictiy aerobic
C. It may cause peritonitis
D. Presence in stool culture indicates need for treatment
Ans. C
Q 65. Heat stable enterotoxin causing food poisoning is caused by all the following except:
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Yersinia enterocolitica
C. Staphylococcus
D. Clostridium perfringens
Ans. D
Q 66. HIV virus contains:
A. Single stranded DNA
B. Single stranded RNA
C. Double stranded DNA
D. Double stranded RNA
Ans. B
Q 67. Regarding HIV which of the following is not true:
A. It is a DNA retrovirus
B. Contains reverse transcriptase
C. May infect host CD4 cells other than T-lymphocytes
D. Causes a reduction in host CD4 cells at late stage of disease
Ans. A
Q 68. CMV retinitis in HIV occurs when the CD4 counts fall below:
A. 50
B. 100
C. 200
D. 150
Ans. A
Q 69. Epstein Barr virus causes all the following except:
A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. Measles
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Ans. B
Q 70. In a patient, corneal scraping reveals narrow angled septate hyphae. Which of the following is the likely etiologic agent:
A. Mucor
B. Aspergillus
C. Histoplasma
D. Candida
Ans. B
Q 71. Which of the following is true regarding globi in a patient with lepromatous leprosy:
A. Consists of lipid laden macrophages.
B. Consists of macrophages filled with AFB
C. Consists of neutrophils filled with bacteria
D. Consists of activated lymphocytes
Ans. B
Q 72. The following diagnostic tests are useful for corresponding purposes except:
A. Zeil-Neelson staining – Detection of mycobacteria
B. Immunoflorescence – Detection of influenza virus
C. Specific IgM antibodies – Immunity against rubella
D. Specific IgM antibodies – Detection of acute infection
Ans. C
Q 73. IL-1 produces:
A. T lymphocyte activation
B. Delayed wound healing
C. Increased pain perception
D. Decreased PMN release from bone marrow
Ans. A
Q 74. Microfilaria are seen in peripheral blood in which stage of filariasis:
A. Tropical eosinophilia
B. Early elephantiasis
C. Early adenolymphangitis stage
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q 75. Confirmation of diagnosis of rota virus infection is by:
A. Antigen detection in stool by ELISA
B. Antibody titres in serum
C. Antigen detection by immunoflurescence
D. Antigen detection in serum by ELISA
Ans. A
Pharmacology
Q 76. Regarding efficacy and potency of a drug, all are true, except:
A. In a clinical setup, efficacy is more important than potency
B. In the log dose response curve, the height of the curve corresponds with efficacy
C. ED50 of the drug corresponds to efficacy
D. Drugs that produce a similar pharmacological effect can have different levels of efficacy
Ans. D
Q 77. All the following are selective beta blockers, except:
A. Atenolol
B. Esmolol
C. Bisprolol
D. Celiprolol
Ans. D
Q 78. All of the following factors increase the risk of aminoglycoside renal toxicity, except:
A. Elderly person
B. Dehydration
C. Simultaneous use with penicillin
D. Aminoglycoside administration in recent past
Ans. C
Q 79. In which of the following disorders is administration of barbiturates contraindicated in:
A. Anxiety disorders
B. Acute intermittent porphyria
C. Kemincterus
D. Refractive status epilepticus
Ans. B
Q 80. Mechanism of action tianeptin in the brain is:
A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibition
B. Selective norepinephfine reuptake inhibition
C. Selective serotonin reuptake enchancer
D. Selective dopamine reuptake inhibition
Ans. C
Q 81. Proton pump inhibitors are most effective when they are given:
A. After meals
B. Shortly before meals
C. Along with H2 blockers
D. During prolonged fasting periods
Ans. B
Q 82. Which of the following is correctly matched:
A. Dimercaprol:Iron
B. Calcium di-sodium EDTA:Arsenic
C. Penicillamine:Copper
D. Desferrioxamine:Lead
Ans. C
Q 83. Digoxin is contraindicated in:
A. Supraventricular tachycardia
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
Ans. D
Q 84. All the following drugs cause renal failure except:
A. Cephaloridine
B. Amphoterecin B
C. Cefoperazone
D. Gentamicin
Ans. C
Q 85. All of the following statements are true regarding losartan except:
A. It is a competitive angiotensin receptor antagonist
B. It has a long acting metabolite
C. Associated with negligible cough
D. Causes hyperuricemia
Q Ans. D
86. Gemcitabine is effective in:
A. Head and neck cancers
B. Pancreatic cancer
C. Small-cell lung cancer
D. Soft tissue sarcoma
Ans. B
Q 87. All of the following drugs can cross placenta except:
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Morphine
D. Heparin
Ans. D
Q 88. A highway truck driver has profuse rhinorrhea and sneezing. Which amongst the following durgs would you prescibe him?
A. Pheniramine
B. Promethazine
C. Dimerhydrinate
D. Cetrizine
Ans. D
Q 89. The mechanism of action of sodium nitroprusside is:
A. Increased cAMP
B. Increased guanylate cyclase
C. Calcium channel blockage
D. K+ channel opener
Ans. B
Q 90. All the following belong to the steroid receptor superfamily except:
A. Vitamin D3 receptor
B. Thyroid receptor
C. Retinoid receptor
D. Epinephrine receptor
Ans. D
Q 91. All of the following undergo hepatic metabolism before excretion except:
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Penicillin G
D. Cimetidine
Ans. C
Q 92. In a patient taking oral contraceptive, the chance of pregnancy increases after taking any of the following drugs except:
A. Phenytoin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Ampicillin
D. Cimetidine
Ans. D
Q 93. The primary mechanism of action of fluoride on topical application is:
A. Conversion of hydroxyapatite to fluoroapatite by replacing the –OH ions
B. Inhibition of plaque bacteria
C. Form a reservoir in saliva
D. Improvement in tooth morphology
Ans. A
Q 94. A 65 year old man was con

MCI 2009

QUESTIONS SEPTEMBER 2005(part 1&2) (the answers marked with question mark are not appropriate. if anyone gets the correct answer, please do the proper corrections) 1,Hydatid cyst is commonly found in 1, liver 2, lungs 3, kidney (ans:liver ) 2, Most common site of abscess formation due to Amoeba 1, liver 2, Lungs 3, kidney (ans:liver ) 3, Umblical cord has (repeated question in all previous papers) 1,2artery n 1 vein 2,2 vein n 1 art. (Ans:2 artery n 1 vein) 4, Apoptosis Programmed internal suicidal cell death 5, wheal and flare reaction is 1, Type 1 hyper sensitivity 2, Type 2 hyper sensitivity 3, Type 3 hyper sensitivity 4, Type 4 hyper sensitivity (ans:Type 1 hyper sensitivity. All the anaphylactic reactions comes under type 1 hyper sensitivity) 6, Hypoglossal nerve is 1,6th nerve 2,7th nerve 3,12th nerve 4,9th nerve (Ans:12th nerve) 7, Muscle in the inguinal canal is 1, Internal oblique 2, External oblique 3, Transverse (ans:???transverse) 8, Total claw hand 1, ulnar and median nerve 2, ulnar nerve 3, median nerve (ans:?ulnar and median nerve) 9,In Hansen’s disease the nerve affected is: 1, ulnar nerve 2, median nerve 3, radial nerve (ans:ulnar nerve.Hansans disease is the other name for leprosy. the most common nerve affected in leprosy is ulna nerve. Ref.Bailey and love. Pg37-41) 10, Complication of extra capsular FRACTURE of femur: 1, Non union 2, mal union (ans:Non union Ref.SARP Surgery and orthopaedics pg.89) 11,eye ball moments controlled by all, EXCEPT: 1, optic nerve 2, abducens nerve 3, Trochlear nerve 4, oculomotor nerve (ans:optic nerve.( Abducens 6th nerve moves the eye laterally,Trochlear nerve helps in moving the eye down and in,Oculomotor 3rd nerve helps for outward lateral gaze) 12, Lacrimal duct passes through, except: 1, Frontal 2, maxillary 3, zygomaticus 4, lacrimal 13, Right common carotid artery arises from: 1,Right axillary 2, Arcus aorta 3, Brachiocephalicus (ans:Brachiocephalicus) 14, The first heart sound S1 is due to the: 1, AV closure 2, opening of aortic valve 3, closing of aortic valve (ans:AV closure) 15, Rheumatic fever is associated with: 1, Mitral valve 2,Pulmonary valve 3,Tricuspid valve 4, Aortic valve (ans:Mitral valve) ?15, Hernia Morgani passes through: 1,pleuro peritoneum 2,diaphragm 16, Gland of Burner is found in (Rpt in march 2005) ()ANS:Deudenum) 17, Length of Duodenum: 1,15 2,20 3,25 (ans:20-25cm, Ref. SARP BAP(biochem,Anatomy ,Physiology ) pg 77) 18, Tuberculosis commonly affects which part of the colon: 1, Transverse colon 2, Terminal colon 3, Jejunal colon 19, Unilateral breast findings with scaly SKIN around the nipple with intermittent bleeding (Rpt. In march 2005) 1, Pagets disease 2, Eczema 3,CA breast (ans:Pagets disease) 20Simple Mastectomy includes: 1,Breast and axillary nodes 2,only breast 3, Breast +axillaries nodes+pectoralis major muscle (ans:Only Breast, Simple Mastectomy- this means complete removal of the breast but the axilla is left undisturbed except for the region of the axillary tail which usually has attached to it a few nodes low in the anterior group. Ref.Bailey and love(20th edition) pg.733) 21, Continous Murmur is found in which arterial disease: 1,AV Fistula 2,Disecting aortic aneurysm (ans: AV Fistula. Continuous machinery murmur is also found in Patent Ductus arteriosus PDA) ??22, which ion helps is potential: 1,Na+ 2,K+ 23,All of the following found in Horner’s syndrome, EXCEPT: 1,Ptosis 2,Meiosis 3, Hyperhydrosis (ans:Hyperhydrosis, In Horners syndrome, unilateral Anhidrosis(ie,loss of sweating) is found) 24,Peau d’ Orange of Breast is due to: 1,Obstruction if lymph 2,Obstruction of ducts 3,Obstruction of arteries 4,Obstruction of Vein (ans:Obstruction of Lymphatic vessels, Ref.Robbins Basic Pathology ,pg.354) 25,Reabsorption of Water is maximum in : 1,proximal tubules 2,Henles loop 3,collecting duct (ans:Proximal tubules) 26,Carcinoid syndrome, ass. With except, 1,Diarhoea 2,Flushing 3,Acute appendicitis 4,cyanosis (ans:?cyanosis) 27,Acute Pancreatitis associated with: 1,Alcoholic 2,Gall bladder stones 3,Elevated serum amalyse 4,All of the above (ans:?all of the above) 28,Diagnosis of CA colon ,best indicated by: 1,colonoscopy 2,CT 3,Barium enema 4,x-ray (ans:colonoscopy) 29,Radiation is less in: 1,CT 2,MRI 3,Fluroscopy 4,X-ray (ans:MRI) 30,CA colon Marker: (ans:CEA) 31,AFP(alpha feta protein ) is increased in: 1,Hepatic carcinoma 2,Renal carcinoma (ans:Hepatic carcinoma) ??32,Ananencephaly is better diagnosed in which trimester: 1,1st trimester 2,2-3 trimester 33,Which of the following nerve is damaged by the FRACTURE of the shaft of the humerus: 1,Radial nerve 2,ulnar nerve 3,median nerve (ans:Radial nerve) ??34,Inversion and Eversion is done by? 35,Supination is done by: (ans:Radio ulnar joint) 36,FRACTURE of supracondylar of the femur affects which nerve: 1,sciatic nerve 2,poplitial nerve 37,Vein used in bypass Surgery : 1,Long saphenus vein 2,short saphenus vein (ans:long saphenus vein) ?38,pulseless (ans:Methionine) 39,Which is seen in RNA but not seen in DNA: 1,adenosine 2,Uracil (ans:uracil) 40,Production of Uric acid is by: 1,Nucleic acid 2,Protein (ans:??nucleic acid) 41,Hexose is not seen in: 1,Pentose 2,Glucose 3,Fructose (ans:Pentose-5 ,and hexose is 8 ) 42,Common complication of long bone FRACTURE : 1,Fat embolism 2,Pulmonary embolism (ans:Fat embolism.It is the commenest complication of long bone fractures like, femur FRACTURE ) 43,Definitive management for Tension pneumothorax is: (ans:Thoracosynthesis) 44,Normal Fluid level in pericardium 1,100-150 2,50-100 3,150-200 45,polyhydroaminosis is increase in aminoitic fluid more than: 1,1000ml 2,2000ml 3,3000ml 46,HIV is associated with 1,Disseminated TB 2,Oesophageal candidiasis 3,MAI 4,all of the above (ans:?all of the above) 47,Radiological findings of Ewings sarcoma(Rpt) (ans:Onion Peel appearance) 48,Osteosarcoma affects: 1,Metaphysis 2,Diaphysis 3,Epiphysis (ans:Metaphysis,Ref:SARP-Surgery and orthopaedics ,pg 51) 49& 50,,Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by: (ans:Clostridium Difficle) 51,Diagnostic test for Enteric Fever: 1,WIDAL test 2,VDRL (ans:WIDAL.Enteric fever is the other name for Typoid fever, and the the diagnostic tests include, (mneumonic:BASU,ie, 1st week,B-blood culture,2nd week,A-agglutination test which is called as WIDAL,3rd week S-Stool culture and 4th week,U-Urine culture) 52,Complement Fixation test is: 1,Coombs test 2,Waserman reaction 3,VDRL 4,WIDAL 53,Iron Deficiency anemia is commonly caused by (Rpt) (ans:Hook worm ) 54,Which is a pre-toxin: 1,E.coli 2,Cholera 3,SALMONELLA 4,Staph.aureus 55,Trauma to spleen is best diagnosed by: 1,USG 2,CT (ans:?USG) 56,Post splenectomy causes: 1,Thrombocytosis 2,Thrombocytopenia 3,Thrombocytopenia and leucopenia 57,Radial nerve 1,c5,c6 2,C5,C6,T1 (ans:C5,C6.T1) 58,ST elevation is seen in: 1,Acute MI 2,Pericarditis 3,Prinze metals angina 4,all of the above (ans:all of the above) 59,cholera vaccination is effective: 1,6 months 2,3 months 60,Hepatitis B vaccine should be given as: 1,0,1,6months 2,0,1,6 days (ans:0,1,6 months) 61,BCG should be given: (ans:Immediately after birth) 62,Cellular fragments od Rabies vaccine is given at: 1,Anterior Abdomen 2,Deltoid muscle 3,Medial part of thigh 63,BCG is diluted with: 1,NS 2,Distilled water 64,Vitamin A should be given at: (ans:6-9months) 65,Cancroid is caused by: (ans:H.Ducrei) 66,Swan Gann Catheter is used to measure: (ans:PCWP-pulmonary capillary wedge pressure) 67,CVP denotes,pressure of: 1,Right atrium 2,Rt.Ventricle 3,Left atrium 4,Lt.Ventricle (ans:Rt.atrium,?as the vena cava(sup. N inf.) ends in Right atrium, central venous pressure helps in determing the venous filling) 68,Tricuspid Incompetence: 1,a wave 2,Hepatic pulsation (ans:hepatic pulsation, pulsatile liver is a feature in Tricuspid regurgitation) 69,In a patient with Diabetic nephropathy , the anti hypertensive commonly used is: 1,ACE inhibitors 2,Ca channel blockers 3,B-blockers (ans:ACE inhibitors) 70,Microaneurysm is the most common complication of: 1,Diabetic Mellitus 2,Hypertension (ans:Diabetic Mellitus) 71,Most common cause of blindness in India is:(Rpt. In March 2005) (ans:Cataract) 72,Vitreous Hemorrage in Young patients is most commonly due to: 1,Diabetics mellitus 2,Retinal Detachment 3,Eales disease (ans??Eales disease) 73,The lens used in astigmatism: 1,concave lens 2,convex lens 3,cylindrical lens (ans:cylindrical lens) 74,seminoma is ca of: (ans:testes) 75,Post.staphyloma: 1,myopia 2,hypermetropia 76,constriction of pupils: 1,only light reflex 2,light reflex and accommodation 3,refraction (ans:??light reflex and accommodation) 77,??keratoconus 78,Inhaled forgeign body is seen in the: 1,Right apex 2,Right lower lobe 3,Left apex 4,Left lower lobe (ans:?Right lower lobe) 79,Community acquired pneumonia: 1,pneumococci 2,streptococci 3,H.influenza 80,Placenta Praveica: 1,Painfull bleeding 2,severe abdominal pain 3,painless bleeding 4,all of the above (ans:painless bleeding, only Placenta Abruptia has painfull abdominal pain with bleeding) 81,A pregnant lady in her first trimester,complaints with bleeding, on examination the OS is closed: 1,Inevitable abortion 2,Threatend abortion (ans:Threatened abortion,since the OS is closed it should be threatened abortion, is the os is opned, it can be inevitable abortion) 82,A primigravida with hypertension, when should we induce labour: 1,35 week 2,37 week 3,40 week 4,39 week (ans:?37 week) 83,Anti-D Rh is given for: (Rh positive father, and Rh neg. mother) 84,for a lady in her pregnancy, to prevent Tetanus, who should be immunized: 1,Tetanus toxid to the mother 2,Tetanus toxid to the infant 3,immunoglobin to the mother (ans:TT to the mother) 85,Treatment for ectopic pregnancy: 1,salpihigotomy 2,observation 3,D&C 86,Misoprostol is given, except 1,Missed abortion 2,To induce labour 3,menorrhagia 4,postpartum hemorrhage 87,custodial rape is judged in 1,Judicial magistrate 2,district magistrate (ans:judicial magistrate) 88,Anti-hypertensive contratindicated in pregnancy : 1,Hydralazine 2,Methyldopa 3,Enalapril 4,Amylodopine (ans:?enalapril) 89,which is a pro-drug: 1,enalapril 2,clonidine (ans:?enalapril) 90,pharmocodynamics deals with: 1,Mechanism of action 2,Excretion 91,Theurapatic index: 1,efficacy 92,Le fort FRACTURE (Rpt in march 2005): 1,Maxilla 2,Mandible (ans:Maxilla) 93,Metabolic acidosis is seen in: (ans:Diabetic ketaacidosis,(Mneumonics:LUKD,Lactic acidosis,Uremia-renal failure,Ketoacidosis,Drugs like acetozolemide,phenformin etc,..in all these conditions, metabolic ketacidosis is seen) 94,Breast feeding is contraindicated in: 1,Mastitis 2,HIV carrier 3,Open TB 95,Condoms are more preferred because, they have: 1,Reduced side effects 2,reduced failure rates (ans:reduced side effects) 96,Natural method of contraception:: 1,Rhythm method 2,coitus interruption 3,breast feeding 4,all of the above (ans:all of the above) 97,Infant Mortality rate is: (ans:1000 live births) 98,Maternal mortility rate calculated as:: 1,42 days after delivery 2,immediately after delivery (ans:??42 days after delivery) 99,Total fertility rate is: 1,reproductive age of the female at 15-44 100,Eligible couple (rep. march 2005) Recently married couple where the female is of fertile age 101,Not a grevious injury: 1,contusion of breast 2,multiple scars of face 3,FRACTURE of femur (ans:contusion of breast) 102,Drug indicated for hyperthyroidism during pregnancy: 1,prophyltiouracil 2,carbamazipine (ans:propylthiuracil) 103,No. of parathyroid glands: 1,4 2,6 3,2 (ans:4) 104,Features of Graves disease,except: 1,most common in male 2,TREMOR 3,pretibial myxodema (ans:most common in males, graves disease is most commonly found among females, TREMOR , pretibial myxodema are characteristic features of graves disease) 108,Hypercholestremia is commonly associated with: 1,hypothyroidism 2,diabeticsmelitus 109,All are features of hypothyroidism except, 1,lid retraction 2,myxedema 3,bradycardia 4,dry SKIN (ans:lid retraction, it is seen in hyperthyroidism ,ie, as exopthalmus, when the patient has exophthalmus, there is lid retraction. Rest are features of hypothyroidism) 110,Virchos triad is seen in: 1,DVT 2,Hyper coagulity 3,Abdominal visceral malignancy 111,glasscow scale in death is: 1,0 2,3 3,5 (ans:3, patient is declared death when the GCS is 3) 112,panic attack is: 1,Acute anxiety 2,chronic anxiety 113,sucidal tendency is assoiciated with: 1,depression 2,schizophrenia 3,impulsive disorder 4,all of the above (ans:?depression or ? all of the above) 114,short acting drug(or? Bezodiazephams) 1,diazepham 2,lorezepham 3,midasolam (ans:?diazepham or ?midazolam. both are short acting drugs, if benzodiazepham is mentioned then diazepham will be more opt. lorezepham is a long acting benzodiazepham) 115,short acting anesthetic agent used for induction: 1,thiopental 2,ketamine 3,propofol (ans:?propofol) 121,Hypnotic drug action is: 1,rapid elimination and slow distribution 2,slow elimination and rapid distribution 122,H+ ion is eliminated by 1,lungs 2,stomach 3,kidney (ans: ?kidney ) 123,First pass metabolism: 1,oral 2,sub cutaneus 3,sub lingual 4,rectal (ans:??sublingual) 124,lassik content 1,xenon 2,excimer 3,yog (ans:?excimer) 125,A 40 yr old male,has a rash over the groin, with a scaly lesion on examination: 1,candidiasis 2,Malazi furfur 3,Trichophyton 126,Most common nosocomial fungal infection: 1,candidiasis 2,aspergillosis 127,superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain from except: 1,testis 2,uterus 128,EBV(ebstein barr virus) except: 1,pancreas 2,burkitts lymphoma 3,glandular fever (ans:?pancreas) 129,antiaggrent: (ans:asprin) 130,anticoagulant is given in all conditions except: 1,pericarditis 2,DVT 3,pulmonary embolism (ans:pericarditis) 131,OCP(oral contraceptive pills) is contraindicated in (ans:hepatic failure) 132,Primary colours except: 1,green 2,red 3,white (ans:white) 133,in colour blindness (ans:?defect in 1 or more prime colours) 134,jovel bodies seen in ? 135,Most commin utero-vesicle fistula in India: 1,obstructed labour 2,pelvic Surgery (ans:obstructed Surgery ) 136,Treatment for zollinger elison syndrome: 1,omeprezole 2,cimitedine (ans:omeprezol, proton inhibitors are best indicated ) 137,2nd stage of labour: 1,increase in contraction 2,cervix dilatation 3,all of the above (ans:?all of the above) 138,Heamolysis: 1,vit.E 2,vit.K (ans:vit.E) 139,Free radicals: (ans:vit.E, vit.E,A,C are anti-oxidants.) 140,Meckels diverticulitis is ass. With: 1,increased bleeding 2,ass/ diverticulitis 141,pharyngeal pouch? 142,Reflex nephropathy is diagnosed by (Rpt in march 2005) (ans:MCU(micturating cysto urethrogram) 143,Heamocolpus is : (ans:imperforate hymen) 144,Height doubles at: (ans:4 years) 145,vitamin D deficiency is: (ans:Rickets) 146,Enteric fever is caused by: (ans: S.thyphi) 147,Tubercular focus at apex: 1,gommus 2,simsands 148,Nutritional essential in a child noted as 1,weight for age 2,height for age 3,arm circumference 149,Tyrosin becomes essential in 1,phenylketonuria 2,thyrosinosis 150, ,In intermittent porphyria what is the urine content: 1,uroporphyrin 2,porphobilinogens (ans:porphobilinogens,Ref:Oxford handbook of Medicine ,pg 708 151,Essential amino acids are named so: Because they are not produced in the body 152,Enzymes are: 1,protein 2,Lipid (ans:protein) 153,Poluunsaturated fatty acids,Except: 1,olieic acid 2,arachinic acid 154,All are bad cholesterol except: 1,HDL 2,LDL 155,MI enzymes are: 1,Tropin 2,Myoglobulin 3,LDH 4,all of the above (ans:all of the above) 156,UTI contains microbes: 1,>10^6 >10^10 157,Which immunoglobulin is present in the breast milk: (ans:IgA) 158,IgM denotes: (ans:primary reaction) 159,Investigation of choice for Acute pancreatitis: 1,CT 2,USG 3,Xray (ans:??CT) 160,What is the major side effect of streptomycin: (ans:Ototoxicity) 161,which is of Obstructed COPD: 1,Bronchial asthma 2,Chronic bronchitis 3,bronchoectasis 4,all of the above 162.apoprotein of cholesterol: 1,apoE 2,apo A1 3,apoA2 163,Pancreatic calcification is due to: 1,alcoholism 2,Cystic fibrosis 3,idiopathic 4,heriditory 164,cholesterol is: 1,b-caratone 165,Breast milk ejection is due to: 1,oxytoxin 2,prolactin (ans:oxytoxin,pralactin helps in secretion of milk) 166,Weight of a child triples at: (ans:1 year) 167,recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies except: 1,cricothyroid 168,Not a solitary nodule: 1,cyst 2,adenoma 169,Cryptococcus 1,pigeon droppings 170,endemic dropsy: 1,sanginosus 171 ,in Malaria falciparum: 1,ring shaped cresents seen 172,potassium sparing drug: 1,spironolactone 2,furesemide (ans:spironolactone,all other diuretics causes hypokalemia when given,spironolactone spares pottasium) 173,carbohydrates,proteins and fat metabolism occurs in which cycle: 1,krebs cycle 2,coherts cycle 174,pulse biferns occurs in: 1,AR 2,AS n AR 3,HOCM 4,all of the above (ans:?all of the above) 175,Obstructive jaundice is due to: (ans:gall stones) 176,Difference between human milk and cows milk: 1,iron deficiency 177,Post partum hemorrhage in a spontaneous delivery is due to: (ans:uterine atony) 178,in SHOCK: 1,hypotension 2,hypoperfusion to tissues 3,hypoxia 4,all of the above (ans:all of the above) ?179,hepatitis E 180,what is the lung findings in HIV: 1,disseminated TB 2,LUPUS vulgaris (ans:disseminated TB) 181,Pneumoperitonium is seen in: 1,PA erect view 2,abdominal xray 182,Wilson disease is due to : (ans:copper) 183,which is a mast cell stabilizer: (ans:sodium chromoglycate) 184,drinking water test is done in: 1,acute congestive glaucoma 2,acute glaucoma 3,chronic glaucoma 185,osmolity 1,serum potassium 2,serum sodium (ans?:serum sodium) 186,plaque is caused by 1,flea 2,tics 3,mites (ans:?flea) 187,HONK (hyper osmality non ketoacidosis) occurs in: (ans:Diabetes mellitus) 188,Mid day meals: 1/3 calories +1/2 protein 189,heamorrage leads to: (ans:hypovolemic shock) 190,Most common stranglulation occurs in: (ans:femoral hernia) 191,cough impulse is not seen in: (ans:strangulation) 192,Acute appendicitis: 1,fever >42 2,anorexia,Right hypochondrial pain,fever (ans: anorexia,Right hypochondrial pain,fever) ?193,active potential: K+ 194,Least conduction fibres: 1,C- fibres 195,Reticulocytes are found in: (ans:hemolytic anemia,when HEMOLYSIS occurs, much of immature reticulocytes are produced in bone marrow,Ref.check kapithans ped. Book) 196,Which drug is not given in anaphylactic shock: 1,adrenalin 2,steroids 3,antibiotics 4,antihistamine (ans:antibiotics) 197,Ovulation occurs: 1,14 days prior to next menstruation 2,14 days after menstruation 3,on 14th day (ans:14 days prior to next menstruation:) 198,Complication in Diabetics mellitus occurs after : 1,6 years 2,8 years 3,12 years 199,glove and stockings sensory loss occurs in: 1,syringomelia 2,pheripheral neuropathy 3,all of the above (ans:all of the above) 200,causative of sore throat: 1,Strep.pyogens 2,staphylococcus (ans:strep. Pyogens, it is the causative for infective endocarditis) ?201,sup. Thyroid occurs frm: 1,4th branchial arch 202,DNA: 1,deoxyribose sugar 203,Mycobacterium grows in: 1,LG medium 204,Effective sterilization: 1,steam under pressure 2,hot water 205,?pasturation of milk determined by: ??methylene blue 206,Sharp instrument should be disposed in: 1,red bag 2,blue bag (ans:?red bag) 207,term vaccine was named by: 1,Louis Pasteur 2,Jenner 208,Absence of sperms: 1,oligospermia 2,Azzospermia (ans:azzospermia) 209,Duputryens contracture affects: 1,little finger 2,ring finger 3,middle finger (ans:little finger) 210,GB (gullian barr syndrome) characteristic: (ans:loss of limb reflex) 211,Co2 is carried in the plasma in the form of : 1,bicarbonate 2,carbonic acid (ans:?bicarbonate) 212,glucose in ORS is used: (ans:for the absorption of Na+) 213,disease caused by cotton: (ans:bysinosis) 214,aniline dyes causes: 1,bladder Ca 2,renal ca 3,hepatic ca (ans:bladder ca) 215,non alcoholic hepatitis,except: 1,Mallory hyaline fibrosis 2,steatis 216,COPD –all except, 1,RVF(right vent. Failure) 2,polycythemia 3,LVF(left vent. Failure) (ans:?LVF) 217,Most common feature of essential hypertension: 1,headache 2,visual fortification (ans:headache) 218,LVH is caused by: (ans:essential hypertension, hypertension causes left vent. Strain) 219,Vagina is lined by: 1,Squamous cell epithelium 2,columnar cells (ans:squamous cell) 220,Nitrates indicates: (ans:,recent pollution) 221,first line prevention of epidemics: 1,confirmation of diagnosis 2,isolation 3,mass immunization 222,pin point pupils are seen in, except 1,datura 2,opiods 3,organophosphates 4,cerebello pontine hemarroge (ans:datura(ectasy) 223,glomular filtration rate increases in: 1,hypertension 2,bowmen capsules pressure 3,increased osmotic pressure 224,hemorrhagic cystitis is caused by: (ans:cyclophosphamide) 225,allopurinol: 1,inhibits the synthesis of uric acid 226,Gerotas fasia covering: 1,kidney 2,femur 227,gentamycin is not given orally because 228,which drug effects both bacterial and anerobic infections: 1,sparfloxcillin 2,pefloxacillin 3,norfloxacillin 4,ciprofloxcillin 229,Dark ground microscopy: 1,refracted light 2,polarized light 230,retained placenta causes 1,prolonged bleeding 2,sepsis 3,placental polyp 4,all of the above (ans:all of the above) 231,exercise to increase the muscle strength: 1,isotonic 2,isometric 3,aerobic isotonic 232,Southern blot test: 1,DNA 2,RNA 3,PCR (ans:DNA, northern blot test is for RNA, Western blot for HIV) 233,niacin is synthesized 1,tryptophan 234,Iron storage is: 1,transferring 234,In vitro fertilization: 1,artifical insemination 235,spinal cord ends at: 1,L2 2,S1 3,L1 4,S2 (ans:L2) 236,estrogen deficiency leads to: 1,osteoporosis 2,dysmenorrhea (ans:osteoporosis, most of the post menopausal women get osteoporosis, because of estrogen def.) 237,curlings ulcer: 1,deudonal ulcers in burns 238,humoral cells are 1,B cells 2,NK cells 3,T cells 239,in leprosy 1,SKIN histocytes 2,swann cells 3,all of the above 240,bile secretion stimulation all, except: 1,vagus ?241,semicircular canal 242,cardiac output is determined by, except 1,stroke volume 2,cardiac contractility 3,cardiac rate 4,body surface area (ans?:body surface area) 243,vessels to meninges: 1,external carotid 2,internal carotid 3,vertrebral 4,basilar 244,Artery supplied to sup. Temporal brain : 1,middle cerebral art. 245,epiphyseal plate FRACTURE is classified by 1,harris 246,?directly acting drugs except: ?dopamin 247,pharmocodynamics and pharmacokinetics: 1,nitrates 2,amiodarone 3,verapamil 4,hydralazine 248,maternal mortality ? 1 lakh 249,pneumatocoel is caused by (ans: staph. Aureus)